ITIL Practice Tests

Question 1: Which of the following is the correct definition of a customer-based SLA?
A An SLA with a customer covering all of the services they use
B An SLA covering all customer groups and all the services they use
C SLAs for each service that are customer-focused and written in
business language
D An SLA for each service, covering all those customer groups that use
that service

ANSWER
A

Question 2: Which of the following data is LEAST likely to be used in the Incident process?
A Incident category
B Cost of faulty item
C Make/model of faulty item
D Impact code
ANSWER
B

Question 3: An IT department wants to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling comparable services. This approach is known as:
A Market rate
B The going rate that is agreed with customers
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
ANSWER
A

Question 4: Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?
A Verification
B Security
C Reliability
D Maintainability
ANSWER
A

Question 5: The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to
avoid spending a lot of money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost
ANSWER
C

Question 6: To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the Service Desk servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager
B Change Manager
C Capacity Manager
D Financial Manager
ANSWER
B

Question 7 Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Service Level Management
B IT Service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services
C Change and Capacity Management
D Change and Release Management
ANSWER
D

Question 8 Which of the following is a potential problem when implementing
Change Management?
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of Changes
C Better alignment of IT services to business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
ANSWER
A

Question 9 Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Recommendations
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Back-out plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER
D

Question 10: Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational
Management stage of the IT Service Continuity Management life-cycle?
A Develop procedures and initial testing
B Education and awareness
C Review, audit and assurance
D Ongoing training and testing
ANSWER
A

Question 11: Intermediate Recovery is concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours
ANSWER
C

Question 12: Which of the following could be members of the Change Advisory Board?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 IT technical managers
A All of them
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Page 4 of 12

ANSWER
A

Question 13: Which of the following should be easier after the implementation of a good IT
Service Management software tool?
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 Implementation of preventative measures
A 1, 2 and 4
B 2 and 3
C All of them
D 1 and 4
ANSWER
A

Question 14: Identifying the potential damage or loss to an organization resulting from disruption
to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B CRAMM
C Business Impact Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis
ANSWER
C

Question 15: In Availability Management, what is SOA?
A System Optimization Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis
ANSWER
D

Question 16: Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and
components operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is
available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts

ANSWER
D

Question 17: Which one of the following statements is true?
A Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
B Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against
tax
C Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
D Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
ANSWER
A

Question 18: What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not
B There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known Error
C In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause is known
D In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT infrastructure,
with a Problem there is not
ANSWER
C

Question 19: Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A DSL
B AMDB
C CMDB
D CDB
ANSWER
A

Question 20: A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgraded. The users are
now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems
with the network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
D Problem Management

ANSWER
B

Question 21: What is the correct sequence of activities involved in implementing a
Service Management tool:
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Analysis of requirements
A 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
B 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
C
2 – 1 – 4 – 3
D
2 – 1 – 3 – 4
ANSWER
B

Question 22: The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in
which sequence?
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review Underpinning Contracts and
OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, negotiate,
catalogue services, agree SLAs
C Review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue
services, negotiate, agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review Underpinning Contracts
and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
ANSWER
D

Question 23: Which of the following statements is true?
A An urgent Release is always a Delta Release
B A Full Release may contain Package and Delta Releases
C A Full Release may contain several Delta Releases
D A Package Release may contain Full and Delta Releases
ANSWER
D
Question 24: Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?

A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all
customer demands
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
ANSWER
D

Question 25: Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the
infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
A 1 and 2
B All of them
C 3 and 4
D 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER
B

Question 26: The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C 1 and 3
D All of them
ANSWER
D

Question 27: Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk
ANSWER
A

Question 28: The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be
understood by everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
ANSWER
C

Question 29: Which of the following are amongst the main responsibilities of Capacity
Management?
1 Modelling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
A 1 and 2
B 3 and 4
C 2 and 4
D 1 and 3
ANSWER
D

Question 30: When does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the Incident is very senior
D Never
ANSWER
D

Question 31: Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature
Incident Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place
there is no reliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of
little importance to proactive Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of
accurate Incident Management information

ANSWER
C

Question 32: For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Establishing the root cause of a capacity Incident which has led to an
RFC being raised
B Devising the back-out plan for a significant Change
C Chairing the CAB
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
ANSWER
C

Question 33: Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the
following most accurately summaries them?
A Planning, Control, Identification, Status Accounting, Verification
B Problem Control, Error Control, Management reporting
C Incident Control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting
D Identification, Problem Control, support allocation, investigation
ANSWER
B

Question 34: Which of the following will NOT have a direct impact on IT capacity?
A An increase in network bandwidth available
B A reduction in transactions processed
C A reduction in the number of files to be stored
D An increase in the cost per transaction
ANSWER
D

Question 35: Which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D All of them
ANSWER
C

Question 36: Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added
by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised
ANSWER
B

Question 37: Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business
requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with
Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring
performance does not exceed these targets
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and
continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate
at maximum availability
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
ANSWER
A

Question 38: Which of these is a direct benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Service Level Requirements are established
B Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted by users’
telephone calls
C Changes taking place are properly coordinated
D All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date
ANSWER
B

Question 39: The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it includes
B The number of updates to the DHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration
ANSWER
A

Question 40: An ‘unabsorbed’ overhead would typically be:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C A cost which cannot be attributed to a specific customer
D A revenue stream
ANSWER
C